MCQs in Modern Genetics -1.

These MCQs may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.  
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions.

1. In which prokaryotes voluminous genetical works were made ?
        Kindly choose the Correct answer a) TMV –virus b) Phage c) Escherichia coli. d) Coliform bacteria

2. Who discovered the double helix DNA model ?
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) G.H.Khorana b) Mendel c) T.H.Morgan d) Watson and Crick.

3. About how many hereditary diseases in human beings were identified?
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) more than 300. b) less than 300 c) about 400 d) about 100

4. To obtain information about genetic characters in man which of the following help ?
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) biochemical test b) hybridization test c) pedigree analysis. d) Inbreeding

5. Sickle cells anaemia is due to –
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) autosomal gene. b) sex chromosomal gene c) vitamin deficiency d) hormone imbalance

6. Albinism is due to --
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) absence of melanin. b) absence of vitamins c) presence of melanin d) absence of hormone

7. Name the human disease due to autosomal dominant gene --
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) sickle cell anaemia b) thalasemia c) SCID d) Huntigton`s chorea.

8. Idiogram means the diagrammatic representation of ______.
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) genes b) chromosomes. c) graph showing heart defects d) brain

9. The chromosomes 4 and 5 belong to the group classified by karyotyping –
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) group A b) group B. c) group C d) group D

10. What is the name of mobile genetic elements ?
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) plasmids b) pili c) barr body d) transposons.

11. In karytyping the foetal cells are cultured with --
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) acetylcholine b) colchine. c) Hydrogen peroxide d) nitrous oxide

12. In human beings the largest chromosomes 1, 2 and 3 are included under the group
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) C b) D c) E d) A.

13. The humans which of the following is the largest group of chromosomes –
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) B b) C c) D d) G

14. In human beings the chromosomes 13, 14, 15 are –
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) acrocentric b) metacentric. c) telocentric d) sub metacentric

15. In man chromosome Y belongs to-
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) group A b) group C c) group D d) group G.

16. In human beings the X chromosomes belongs to
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) group A b) group C. c) group F d) group G.

17. Mobile genetic elements (Transposons) were first visualized by –
    Kindly choose the Correct answer a) G. H. Khorana b) T. H. Morgan c) Barnara Meclintock. d) Watson and Crick

18. In genetic engineering the vector used is - -
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) a plasmid DNA segment of virus. b) a plasmid DNA segment of bacteria c) a plasmid DNA segment of bacteria or virus. d) a plasmid DNA segment of nematode

19. The number of nucleotides present in a plasmid is –
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) 100 -200 b) 200-300. c) 300-400 d) 400-500

20. An erythroblastic anaemia due to homozygous recessive gene expression in children is
Kindly choose the Correct answer a) Sickle cell anaemia b) Thalassemia. c) Agammaglobulinemia d) Albinism

           

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Human Physiology - MCQs

. . . . Multiple Choice Questions in Physiology . . . . for Twelfth Standard. Bio- Zoology Select a topic listed below, Please! ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Blood Circulation Bones & Joints Digestion Endocrines (Chemical Co-ordination) Excretion Muscles Nervous system (Nervous Co-ordination) Nutrition -1. Nutrition -2. Receptor organs - Eye Receptor organs - Ear & Skin Reproduction

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MCQs in Immunology - Part 2.

Multiple Choice Questions : Immunology - Part 2.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Phago cytosis is performed by ____.
a) Erythrocyte
b) Leucocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) None

2. Natural killer cells are ___.
a) T-Lymphocytes
b) B-Lymphocytes
c) Stem cells
d) Delta cells

3. Cell mediated immunity is the responsibility of ____.
a) cytotoxic lymphocytes
b) antigen presenting cells
c) B-type of hymphocytes
d) T4 cells

4. Primary Lymphoid organ in birds is _____.
a) Bone marrow
b) Thymus
c) Bursa fabricus
d) spleen

5. The thymus develops at above ___.
a) 12th week of gestation
b) 3rd week of gestation
c) 6th week of gestation
d) 4th week of gestation

6. The primary function of thymus is ___.
a) Production of phagocytes
b) Production of erythrocytes
c) Production of T cells
d) Production of B cells

7. The total number of lymph nodes in human body is about___.
a) 500
b) 700
c) 600
d) 800

8. The largest lymphoid organ is ___.
a) Thymus
b) Bone marrow
c) Liver
d) Spleen

9. An example for haptens is ____.
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Hydrogen per oxide
c) Surface protein
d) Dinitro Phenol

10. The two H-chains of immunoglobins are joined by ___.
a) Disulphide bond
b) 1-5 disulphide S-S bonds
c) Hydrogen bond
c) Nitrogen bond

11. Who explained the value of graft rejection ?
a) Medewar
b) Johansson
c) Garrot
d) Gallo

12. The array of HLA alleles on a homologue of our chromosome 6 is known as__.
a) VS graf
b) TNF
c) Inter leukin
d) Haplotype

13. The viral RNA genome is converted into DNA copy by viral enzyme ____.
a) transcriptase
b) reverse transcriptase
c) oxydase
d) oxy-reductase

14. Name of the Leucocyte that increase during the allergic reactions –
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Neutrophils
d) Lymphocytes

15. The spleen serves as the grave yard for effete (aged) _____ cells
a) Red blood
b) Antigens
c) White blood
d) Muscle

           

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MCQs in Immunology - Part 1.

Multiple Choice Questions : Immunology - Part 1.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Which of the following can induce immunity
a) bacteria
b) virus
c) parasite
d) all the above

2. Skin represents a ___ barrior.
a) anatomical
b) physiological
c) phagocytic
d) inflammatory

3. Which among the following is anti-bacterial ?
a) Interferon
b) Lysozyme
c) Hormone
d) protein

4. Which of the following is anti viral ?
a) Lysozyme
b) Interferon
c) Protein
d) Hormone

5. Identify the phagocytic cells from the following combinations.
a) Macrophage and Neutrophil
b) Lymphocyte and Eosinophil
c) Macrophage and Eosinophil
d) Eosinophil and Neutrophil

6. Histamine is secreted by __.
a) Epithelial cells
b) Mast cells
c) Red blood cells
d) None of above

7. Humoral immunity consists of ____.
a) Normal cells
b) Pathological cells
c) cytotoxic cells
d) Immunoglobulin

8. Which type of graft is used in plastic surgery ?
a) Xenograft
b) Allograft
c) Autograft
d) Isograft

9. M.H.C. genes in mouse located in the chromosome ___
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

10. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease ?
a) AIDS
b) Multiple Sclerosis
c) Cancer
d) Asthma

11. Which antibody characterizes the allergic reaction ?
a) IGG
b) IGA
c) IGM
d) IGE

12. SCID is due to ___.
a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
b) Glucose oxidase deficiency
c) Phosphate deficiency
d) none of the above

13. Which of the following causes AIDS?
a) Bacteria
b) Fungus
c) Retro virus
d) TMV

14. Thymus growth occurs upto___.
a) 17 years
b) 12 years
c) 5 years
d) 30 years

15. Which of the following secretes immunoglobin ?
a) T-Lymphocytes
b) B- Lymphocytes
c) Macrophage
d) Mast cells

16. The H-chain of the immunoglobulin has a molecular weight ___.
a) Equivalent to that of light chain
b) Twice that of light chain
c) Triple the amount of light chain
d) Twice as that of dark chain

17. Immunoglobulins are chemically____.
a) Glycogens
b) Glycoproteins
c) Glycolipids
d) Lipo-proteins

18. Hyper variability regions are present in ____.
a) heavy chain only
b) light chain only
c) heavy and light
d) dark chain

19. Organ transplantation from pig to human is an example for ___.
a) Auto graft
b) Allo graft
c) Iso graft
d) Xeno graft

20. Graft between identical twins is called ___.
a) Xeno graft
b) Allo graft
c) Auto graft
d) Iso graft

           

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MCQS in Microbiology - Part 2.

Multiple Choice Questions in Microbiology - Part 2.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Plague is caused by –
a) rat
b) Treponema pallidium
c) salmonella
d) yersinia pestis

2. Inside the schizont the parasites are known as –
a) sporozoites
b) cryptozoites
c) merozoites
d) amoeba

3. Sleeping sickness is caused by –
a) plasmodium
b) Trypanosoma gambiens
c) leishmania tropica
d) entamoeba

4. Pork tapeworm is an example for –
a) zoo anthroponoses
b) anthronponoses
c) zoonoses
d) vertebrates

5. The infective larvae of trematodes is –
a) miracidium
b) cercaria
c) nauplius
d) tadpole

6. The first antibiotic was discovered by
a) louis Pasteur
b) Alexander Flemming
c) Edward Jenner
d) Robert Koch

7. The incubation time of Rabies in human is –
a) 3 to 8 weeks
b) 6 to 8 weeks
c) 5 months
d) 6 months

8. Typhoid fever is caused by –
a) salmonella
b) trypanosome gambiense
c) leishmania
d) treponema pallidium

9. The approximate size of viruses is ranges from ______.
a) 20nm to 300 nm
b) 20mm to 30 mm
c) 10 to 20 mm
d) 2nm to 3 nm

10. ______________ symmetry is seen in Pox viruses, T-bacteriophages.
a) Isohedral
b) Complex or uncertain
c) helical
d) bilateral

11. Virions contain only a single copy of the nucleic acid. Hence they are called _____.
a) diploid virus
b) retro virus
c) haploid viruses
d) rhabdo virus

12. ____ viruses are the largest of all viruses and are brick shaped.
a) rabies
b) TMV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Pox

13. Hepatitis B is responsible for the cause of _____
a) Tuberculosis
b) Small pox
c) Jaundice and hepatic carcinoma
d) hernia

14. Black water fever is caused by the ________.
a) Plasmodium falciforum
b) plasmodium ovale
c) entamoeba
d) virus

15. Vomiting, profuse diarrhoeal stool (rice water stool) are symptoms for _____.
a) Malaria
b) Cholera
c) Plague
d) Hepatitis

           

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MCQs in Microbiology - Part 1.

Multiple Choice Questions in Mcrobiology - Part 1.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Who first developed vaccines for rabies in man ?
a) Robert Koch
b) Joseph Lister
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Stanley

2. Which one of the following field lead way for modern microbiology ?
a) development of vaccines
b) technique of new viral strains
c) discovery of new viral strains
d) development of pure technique.

3. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the structure of viruses ?
a) nucleic materials are covered by a protein coat
b) the capsid is made up of capsomere
c) some animal viruses an additional envelope
d) additional envelope is made up of glycoprotein

4. Viruses contain only a single copy of nucleic acid, hence they are called –
a) incomplete viruses
b) haploid viruses
c) ploidy viruses
d) variola viruses

5. Tumour inducing viruses are called –
a) pathogenic viruses
b) oncogenic viruses
c) paraviruses
d) variola viruses

6. Which one of the following is a protozoan disease ?
a) African sleeping sickness
b) measles
c) cholera
d) taeniasis

7. Sexual reproduction of Plasmodium takes place in --
a) liver cells of man
b) RBCs of man
c) plasma of man
d) body of mosquito.

8. The Pathogenic form of Entamoeba histolytica -
a) encysted spores
b) vegetative trophozoite
c) merozoite
d) schizont

9. Which one of the following is a trematode worm –
a) schistosomes
b) wuchereria
c) taenia
d) ascaris

10. The more promising chemotherapeutic agent for treating viral diseases is –
a) tetracycline
b) amphicilin
c) interferon
d) anthramycin

11. Germ theory of diseases was formulated by
a) Robert Koch
b) Pasteur
c) lister
d) Jenner

12. New procedures for staining, visualizing and growing bacteria were introduced by
a) Robert Gallo
b) Robert brown
c) Pasteur
d) Robert Koch

13. Robert Koch was awarded Noble prize for his work on –
a) diphtheria bacteria
b) tetanus bacteria
c) leprosy bacteria
d) tuberculosis

14. The technique of Pure culture of bacteria was first adopted by –
a) Pasteur
b) Robert koch
c) Joseph lister
d) Robert brown

15. Who discovered the system for antiseptic surgery ?
a) Joseph Lister
b) Robert Koch
c) Malthas
d) Pasteur

16. The viral genome contains all genetic information in –
a) only DNA
b) only RNA
c) either DNA or RNA
d) capsid

17. Which of the following is a diploid virus ?
a) HIV virus
b) adenovirus
c) measles virus
d) retrovirus

18. Rabies virus belongs to the family –
a) Rhabdovirus
b) Sarcoma virus
c) Adenovirus
d) Oncovirus

19. The largest of all viruses is –
a) SV 40
b) Adenovirus
c) retrovirus
d) pox virus

20. Bacterial conjugation was discovered by –
a) Avery Macbod
b) Mc.Carthy
c) Pasteur
d) Griffith

           

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MCQs in Receptor Organs: Ear & Skin

Multiple Choice Questions : Ear and Skin.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. The audible frequencies to humans are in the range --
a] 2 - 20 Hz
b) 20 - 200 Hz
c] 20 - 2000 Hz
d] 20 -20000 Hz

2. The intensity of sound is measured using the scale --
a) decibel
b] Hertz
c] Mega Hertz
d] Meter

3. The lever system formed by the ear ossicles multiplies the force --
a] 3.3 times
b] 2.3 times
c) 1.3 times
d] 0.3 times

4. Permissible level (recognized by the industrial noise survey of India) for noise is --
a] 10 dB to 21 dB
b] 21 dB to 40 dB
c] 41 dB to 80 dB
d) 81dB to 120dB

5. Loud noises ranges above --
a] 40 dB
b] 70dB
c] 100 dB
d) 130dB

6. The skin is a major organ of the body forming ____ of its total mass
a] 2 %
b] 4%
c) 8 %
d] 10%

7. The skin is having an area between ____ .
a] 0.5 - 1.0 m2
b) 1.1 - 2.2 m2
c] 2.5 - 4.4 m2
d] 5 - 10 m2

8. ________ glands are found in the regions like axilla, areola, pubis, scrotum and perianal regions.
a) Apocrine
b] Merocrine
c] ceruminous
d] Sebaceous

9. Melanocytes possess the enzyme tyrosinase necessary for the synthesis of _______ from the amino acid called tyrosine.
a] Maltose
b) Melanin.
c] Photopsin
d] Cholesterol

10. The extreme degree of generalized hypo pigmentation leads to --
a] Melanoma
b] Leucoderma
c) Albinism
d] Dermatitis

11. An example for localized hypopigmentation --
a] Albinism
b] Eczema
c] Skin lesions
d) Vitiligo

12. Partial albinism causes --
a] melanoma
b] Vitiligo
c) Leucoderma
d] Dermatitis

13. Excessive exposure to Ultra Violet rays can cause -
a] vomitting
b) skin cancer
c] colour change
d] redness of eyes

14. Rag weed plant causes allergic responses and results in --
a) contact dermatitis
b] vitiligo
c] leprosy
d] all the above

15. The cochlear portion of the labyrinth is a tubule coiled _____ times.
a] 1.75
b) 2.75
c] 3.75
d] 4

           

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MCQs in Receptor Organs: Eye

Multiple Choice Questions in Eye.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Accommodation distance for clear vision of objects to an human eye ___.
a] 25 cms. to Infinity
b] 100 cms
c] 10 -100 mtrs
d] 10mm - 100 mtrs.

2. Ideal refractive state of an eye is called ____.
a] Myopia
b] Emmetropia
c] Ametropia
d] Hypermetropia

3. A deviation in Emmetropia is called as _____.
a] Nyctalopia
b] Emmetropia
c] Ametropia
d] Hypermetropia

4. Short sightedness is refered as ____.
a] Hypermetropia
b] Emmetropia
c] Ametropia
d] Myopia

5. Due to elongation of the eye ball and increase of lens curvature results into ___.
a] Myopia
b] Emmetropia
c] Ametropia
d] Hypermetropia

6. Myopia can be corrected by placing ____ in front of the eye.
a] Convex lens
b] Concave lens
c] Aspherical lens
d] mirror

7. ___ results when the curvature of the eye lens is not great enough.
a] Myopia
b] Emmetropia
c] Hypermetropia.
d] Ametropia

8. Hypermetropia (Long sightedness) can be corrected by placing ____ in front of eye lens.
a] Concave lens
b] Distorted lens
c] Aspherical lens
d] Convex lens

9. Distorted lens or cornea leads to the defect known as _____.
a] Astigmatism
b] Emmetropia
c] Ametropia
d] Hypermetropia

10. Astigmatism can be corrected by placing ____ in front of the eye.
a] Plain Glass
b] Lens with varying curvature from one part to another
c] Lens with varying focal length
d] Lens with sensors

11. Both myopia and hypermetropia features are observed in the eye defect is ____.
a] Ametropia
b] Emmetropia
c] Astigmatism
d] Hypermetropia

12. Presbiopia begins at about ____ years of age.
a] 10
b] 20
c] 60
d] 40

13. ____ can give the remedy for defects in reading.
a] Concave lens
b] Convex lens
c] Aspherical lens
d] distorted lens

14. Practice of assessing vision and correction of defects using lens is known as ___.
a] Optometry
b] physiotherapy
c] optics
d] optoelectronics

15. Retinopathy usually results due to ____ , ____.
a] Atherosclerosis, stye
b] Diabetes mellitus, persistent hypertension
c] Astigmatism, hypoglycemia
d] Kidney failure, blindness

16. Diabetic retinopathy can develop the ___ tissues in the vitreous humour.
a] calcareous
b] bony
c] fibrous
d] muscular

17. Retinal detachment may occur due to _____ .
a] Dermatitis
b] fatigue
c] arthritis
d] Hypertensive retinopathy

18. Red eye with yellow discharge is known as ____.
a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis
b] Stye
c] Glaucoma
d] Hypermetropia

19. Opacity in the lens of the eye is known as ____.
a] color blindness
b] Cataract
c] total blindness
d] fatigue

20. Retinopathy can be treated with. _____.
a] Optometry
b] physiotherapy
c] Laser surgery
d] acupuncture

21. ____ causes red eye with itching and watery discharge
a] stye
b] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis
c] Viral conjunctivitis
d] Allergic conjunctivitis

22. Night blindness is referred as ______ .
a] Astigmatism
b] Nyctalopia
c] Ametropia
d] Hypermetropia

23. Red eye without discharge and with cold is popular in _____.
a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis
b] Stye
c] Viral conjunctivitis
d] Glaucoma

24. ___ is an acute infection of the glands located at the eyelid margin.
a] Viral conjunctivitis
b] Allergic conjunctivitis
c] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis
d] stye.

25. ___ is a serious disorder of an eye which can cause blindness
a] Pink eye or Bacterial Conjunctivitis
b] Viral conjunctivitis
c] Glaucoma
d] Stye

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MCQs in Respiration

Multiple Choice Questions in Respiration.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Chronic obstructive airways disease is also called as--
a] COLD
b] Pneumonia
c] Pleurisy
d] Asthma

2. 2, ____ is the controlling centre for the respiratory activities.
a] Cerebrum
b] Medulla oblongata.
c] Alveoli
d] Larynx

3. Intermediate organism between the Bacteria and Virus is ____.
a] Algae
b] Fungi
c] Alveoli
d] Mycoplasma.

4. The membrane lining the lungs is called ____.
a] Pleura
b] Inter coastal muscles
c] Mycoplasma
d] Retina

5. The inflammation of the Pleura is _____.
a] Asthma
a] Pleurisy
c] COLD
d] Pneumonia

6. TB is caused by the bacteria known as ___.
a] Coxsackie virus
b] Mycobacterium leprae
c] Pneumococcal pneumonia
d] Mycobacterium tuberculae

7. The disease causing widening of Alveoli is ____.
a] Asthma
a] Pleurisy
c] Emphysema.
d] Pneumonia

8. The bronchitis in which sputum is coughed up on most days for atleast three consecutive months is known as --
a] Chronic bronchitis
b] Asthma
c] Tuberculosis
d] Pneumonia

9. At the alveolar air at 6mm .Hg, the carbon di oxide diffuses ___ times faster than oxygen.
a] 5
b] 10
c] 15
d] 20

10. Bacterial pneumonia is caused by the bacteria named ______.
a] Coxsackie virus
b] Mycobacterium leprae
c] Pneumococcal pneumonia
d] Mycobacterium tuberculae

           

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MCQs in Reproduction

Multiple Choice Questions in Reproduction.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. In Male, the secondary sexual characters are produced by ____
a] Oestrogen
b] FSH
c} Androgen
d] Leydig’s cells

2. For the effective production of spermatozoa, the testes should be maintained at the temperature of ____.
a} 32°C
b] 42°C
c] 34°C
d] 98.4°C

3. The sperms are stored in ____.
a] Testis
b} Vas deferens
c] Epididymis
d] Seminal vesicles

4. The inhibitin hormone that inhibits the action of testosterone is secreted by ___ .
a} Sertoli cells
b] Leydig’s cells
c] Pituitary
d] Intestine

5. The principal hormone of corpus luteum is ____.
a] Oestrogen
b} progesterone
c] oxytocin
d] relaxin

6. Each developing ovum is enveloped by a mass of -
a] Endometrium
b] Sperms
c} Graffian follicles
d] blood

7. After the ovulation, the graffian follicles converted as --
a} Corpus luteum
b] Embryo
c] Endometrium
d] Prostate gland

8. Ovum enter into the fallopian tubes through -
a] Vagina
b} Fallopian funnel
c] Uterus
d] Gut

9. The mucus membrane of the uterus is termed as --
a} Endometrium
b] Zona pellucida
c] Corpus luteum
d] Cervix

10. Human Ovum is described as _____ .
a} alecithal
b] Mesolecithal
c] Megalecithal
d] Telolecithal

11. _____ Plays an important role at the time of pregnancy.
a} Corpus luteum
b] Corpus callosum
c] Pituitary
d] Adrenal

12. In how many days does the menstrual cycle occur in woman?
a] 14 days
b} 28 days
c] 30days
d] 36 days

13. When corpus luteum ceases to function, it is replace by a scar tissue_____.
a] endometrium
b} corpus albicans
c] epididymis
d] liver

14. Copper-T can remain in the uterus for period of ____
a} 3 years
b] 10 years
c] 14 years
d] 10 months

15. The permanent birth control method for male is ___.
a] tubectomy
b] cervical cap
c] condom
d} vasectomy

16. In test tube babies, the embryo is put inside the uterine endometrium at the ______.
a] 2-cell stage
b] 4-cell stage
c] 6-cell stage
d} 8-cell stage

17. In GIFT method, the fertilized ova are introduce into the ___
a} Fallopian tube
b] Vagina
c] Cervix of Uterus
d] Endometrium

18. If ovum is not fertilized in the fallopian tube, it dies in ___ hours.
a} 12-24
b] 1-2
c] 48-72
d] 1000

19. Progesterone is a ____ hormone.
a} Steroid
b] non-steroid
c] Growth
d] digestive

20. Contraceptive pills stop the mechanism of ____.
a] Growth
b] labor
c} Ovulation
d] Growth

           

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MCQs in Nutrition - 2.

Multiple Choice Questions in Nutrition -2.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Normal Body Mass Index range for adults is :
a] 10 - 15
b] 15 - 19
c] 19 - 25
d] 25 - 29

2. The average intake of water in a day is around _______ .
a] 2500 ml/day (as water 1400 ml]
b] 1500 ml/day (as water 1000 ml]
c] 1000 ml/day (as water 400 ml]
d] 500 ml/day (as water 400 ml]

3. The minerals required for body building activities such as formation of bones and teeth are --
a] Iron, Cobalt and Iodine
b] Calcium, Magnesium and Phosphorus
c] Manganese, Copper, Zinc
d] Chlorine, Sodium and Potassium

4. The neuro-muscular irritability requires the following minerals --
a] Magnesium, Sodium and Potassium
b] Iron, Cobalt and Iodine
c] Manganese, Copper, Zinc
d] Chlorine, Sodium and Potassium

5. Which mineral is found to be necessary for blood clotting ?
a] Iron
b] Iodine
c] Cobalt
d] Calcium

6. Which mineral is found to be necessary for Oxygen transport ?
a] Iridium
b] Iodine
c] Iron
d] Zinc

7. Dermatitis around eyes, nose and behind the ears are caused due to deficiency of _____
a] Pyridoxine
b] Calciferol
c] Vitamin A
d] Niacin

8. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes --
a] Nyctalopia
b] Xerophthalmia
c] Osteomalacia
d] Pellagra

9. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of _____ .
a] Vitamin D
b] Niacin
c] Vitamin E
d] Protein

10. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency of _____ .
a] Vitamin B12
b] Vitamin B6
c] Vitamin B2
d] Vitamin B1

11. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 Causes ____.
a] Beri beri
b] Scurvy
c] Pellagra
d] Nyctalopia

12. Appearance of Bitot’s spot in the cornea might happen due to deficiency of ____
a] Vitamin K
b] Vitamin D
c] Vitamin E
d] Vitamin A

13. __________ serves as a co-enzyme and co-factor in oxidative metabolism.
a] Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6]
b] Biotin (Vitamin B]
c] Chlorine
d] Fat

14. The belly region will appear enlarged for the children affected by ______.
a] Kwashiorkar
b] Marasmus
c] Scurvy
d] Pellagra

15. The Calorie requirement for IRM at heavy work during occupational activities is __
a] 110 calories
b] 750 calories
c] 2200 calories
d] 960 calories

16. The caloric requirement for IRW at heavy work during occupational activities ___.
a] 610 calories
b] 900 Calories
c] 820 calories
d] 1800 Calories

17. The Basal Metabolism (BMR] for sedentary work of IRM is___.
a] 460 calories
b] 900 Calories
c] 820 calories
d] 354 Calories

18. Lack of vitamin___ causesfissures appear at edges of the mouth.
a] Vitamin B1
b] Vitamin B2
c] Vitamin B6
b] Vitamin C

19. In the absence of which vitamin the collagen and connective tissue proteins are not synthesized properly ?
a] Vitamin A
b] Vitamin C
c] Vitamin D
d] Vitamin K

20. Lack of this vitamin leads to haemorrhagic manifestations.
a] Vitamin A
b] Vitamin C
c] Vitamin K
d] Vitamin D

21. Normal metabolism of amino acids and fat are due to _____.
a] Vitamin B1
b] Vitamin B2
c] Vitamin B12
d] Vitamin B6

22. Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by ____.
a] Vitamin B1
b] Vitamin B2
c] Vitamin K
d] Vitamin D

23. What is the Body Mass Index of 70 kg person with a height of 180 cm ___.
a] 25.6
b] 20.6
c] 22.6
d] 21.6

24. The minerals actively engaged in the cardiac functions are _______ and _____ .
a] Potassium and Calcium
b] Iron and Iodine
c] Chlorine and Manganese
d] Glycine and Valine

25. The Basal Metabolism (BMR] for sedentary work of IRW is ______.
a] 680 calories
b] 1084 calories
c] 484 calories
d] 354 Calories

           

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MCQs in Nutrition -1

Multiple Choice Questions in Nutrition Part -1.
These Multiple Choice Questions may facilitate your reading and to have better scores.
At the end of this MCQs you may find the answers for these questions

1. Common intermediary products in carbohydrate metabolic processes is -
a] Lipids
b] Pentoses
c] proteins
d] Trioses

2. Pentose sugars are -
a] Amylase, Lipase
b] Glucose, fructose
c] Lactose, Triose
d] Ribose, Deoxyribose

3. An example of Hexose sugars is -
a] Deoxyribose
b] Ribose
c] Fructose
d] Glycogen

4. A gram of Carbohydrate yields energy equivalent to -
a] 41 calories
b] 4.1 calories
c] 2 calories
d] 100 K.calories

5. Maltose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + Fructose
b] Glucose + Glucose
c] Glucose + Galactose
d] Ribose + Glucose

6. Sucrose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + Fructose
b] Glucose + Galactose
c] Glucose + Glucose
d] Ribose + fructose

7. Lactose forms due to the composition of -
a] Glucose + water
b] Glucose + Glucose
c] Glucose + Fructose
d] Glucose + Galactose

8. A Polysachharide is found in liver and Muscles:
a] Glucose
b] Glycogen
c] ATP
d] Vitamin

9. In food grains, starch is available as ____, _____ molecules -
a] cellulose, ribose
b] Pectin, Amylo pectin
c] peptide, polypeptide
d] lipid, protein

10. The building blocks of Proteins are _____ .
a] Pentoses
b] Amino acids
c] Peptides
d] Enzymes

11. An example for Functional proteins is ___.
a] Lipids
b] ATP
c] Enzymes
d] Glycogens

12. Daily requirement of protein of our body (recommended by ICMR and WHO]
a] 2 gm /Kg body weight
b] 2 mg /Kg body weight
c] 1 gm /Kg body weight
d] 4 gm /Kg body weight

13. An example for protein malnutrition -- .
a] Mid-get
b] Encephalitis
c] Marasmus
d] Scurvy

14. Kwashiorkar is the disease of malnutrition mainly due to reduction of -
a] Lipids
b] Cabohydrates
c] Proteins
d] Water

15. _____ is distinguishing factor between Kwashiorkar and Marasmus
a] albinism
b] Oedema
c] Weakness
d] None

16. A gram of Lipid yields energy equivalent to ____ .
a] 9.3 calories
b] 4.1 calories
c] 2 calories
d] 100 K.calories

17. Visual perception is important role of the vitamin ___.
a] E
b] A
c] C
d] D

18. Blood coagulation is aided by the vitamin ____.
a] E
b] C
c] K
d] A

19. Sunshine vitamin is____.
a] Calciferol
b] Niacin
c] Vitamin E
] Vitamin B

20. Nourishment to nerve cells is provided by the Vitamin ____.
a] C
b] B2
c] A
d] B1.

21. This amino acid can not be synthesised in our body
a] Alanine
b] Asparagine
c] Glutamine
d] Tryptophan

22. An example for Non - essential amino acid --
a] Arginine
b] Valine
c] Glutamine
d] Histidine

23. The Poly unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA] are abundant in ____.
a] Coconut Oil
b] Sunflower oil
c] Castor oil
d] crude oil

24. Rejuvenation of tissues are done by the vitamin
a] Vitamin D
b] Niacin
c] Vitamin E
d] Vitamin B

25. The process of maturation of erythrocytes is due to _________.
a] Vitamin B₁₂
b] Niacin
c] Vitamin A
d] Vitamin B₆

           

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